Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 10:22

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Retailers Seen Using Stablecoins to Push Back Against Card Fees - Bloomberg
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Texas woman dies from brain-eating amoeba after clearing sinuses with tap water - Dallas News
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.